Given
$$u = F(x) = \frac{1}{1 + e^{\frac{-(x-\mu)}{\beta}}},$$
we rearrange for $x$,
$$ x = F^{-1}(u) = \mu - \beta \ln(1/u - 1),$$
with $u \sim U(0, 1)$.
Both sampling from $u$ and applying the inverse function and sampling from the logistic distribution yield similar results.
We visualise the similarity,
Neato!
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